Karl, I am aware of this, but never took the time to understand why it is so. Is it something that can be concisely explained here?
Thanks, Mike Michael T. Scoles, Ph.D. Associate Professor of Psychology & Counseling University of Central Arkansas Conway, AR 72035 >>> "Wuensch, Karl L" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> 01/08/07 7:29 PM >>> Don't be thinking that the standard deviation computed with N-1 in the denominator is absolutely unbiased -- it is not, but it is less biased than when dividing by N. My instructor of statistics in graduate school made the mistake of thinking that s must be unbiased if s**2 was, and was rather embarrassed when I demonstrated to him that it is not. --- To make changes to your subscription go to: http://acsun.frostburg.edu/cgi-bin/lyris.pl?enter=tips&text_mode=0&lang=english
