Mike Palij wrote: > So, Chris, if you're arguing for a relativist position let me ask: > under what conditions is it appropriate for a person to own another > person as property, that is, when is slavery an acceptable culture > practice and what ethical principle(s) are used to support this practice.
Hmm. I suppose you would have to ask someone who believes it to be "appropriate" why they do so. (They will give you a reason. You will disagree with it. And a debate will ensue.) It occurs to me that slavery (of particular kinds) was condoned in both Ancient Greece and in Ancient Rome (not to mention The Bible). So it is hardly the case that it has been universally condemned as immoral. Do you really feel such immense moral certitude from your position there atop the heap at NYU that you will confidently declare that the Roman Empire was "universally" immoral? Or are we -- all of us -- rather less certain of what the "universe" demands than that? Perhaps we should try to get things right locally before we start speaking for the universe. Chris -- Christopher D. Green Department of Psychology York University Toronto, ON M3J 1P3 Canada 416-736-2100 ex. 66164 [email protected] http://www.yorku.ca/christo/ "Censorship is the strongest drive in human nature; sex is a weak second." - Phil Kerby, former editor of the /Los Angeles Times/ ========================== --- To make changes to your subscription contact: Bill Southerly ([email protected])
