Hi Mike et al. - Mike, thanks for the helpful clarification.  I have to confess 
that I was initially confused by your message until I later realized that you 
we referring not to the press story described in David Hogberg's message, but 
to the actual study itself, which I hadn't read.  So yes, if they did indeed 
derive the model in one African-American sample and cross-validate it in a 
second sample (I trust your eagle eye on this one), then I cheerfully withdraw 
my initial comment about a lack of replication (although I'm not sure I 
understand, Mike, what you mean by a "problem" with using the term replication 
in the context in which I was using it, which was the story as reported by the 
media...sounds instead to me that what you're saying is that the news story 
neglected to mention the replication) .   All the best.....Scott

________________________________________
From: Mike Palij [[email protected]]
Sent: Monday, June 14, 2010 8:44 PM
To: Teaching in the Psychological Sciences (TIPS)
Cc: Mike Palij
Subject: RE: [tips] a recent corr/causation example

On Mon, 14 Jun 2010 15:16:07 -0700, Scott O Lilienfeld wrote:
>This study, which I haven't read, raises another question (in addition to the
<correlation-causation question) that I always find interesting to ponder...when
>does detecting an effect in one group (e.g., African-Americans) but not another
>(e.g., Hispanics) constitute a legitimate statistical interaction vs. a failed
>replication?

There is a problem in Scott's use of the term "replication".  In the
study by Sharkey, there are actually two groups of subjects, both
composed of African-Americans and Hispanics, but the first group
was used for analysis and the second group (from a different source)
was used as a "replication sample" on which the statistical model
derived from the first group was "validated".

It may be best to view race/ethnic group as a between-subject factor
in his design, not as a design that tests a model on African-Americans
and tries to replicate on Hispanics (Sharkey's design is actually fairly
complicated, examining groups of subjects at the "city block" level,
census tract level, and neighborhood level).  So, ethnic group enters
into an interaction with the homicide effect, that is, present for in one
group but not the other.

This interaction is then replicated in the second sample of data that
Sharkey analyses.

More relevant concerns include estimating the power for the effect
in Hispanics and White subjects.  I've just done a quick scan of his
article and can't seem to find the relevant sample sizes.  A closer
reading of the paper might reveal this.  Another concern is selection
bias though Sharkey claims that this study overcomes this objection.
Again, a close reading might substantiate this.  However, he is using
data based on subjects that were enrolled in studies in Chicago and
it is not clear to me that these are random samples from the larger
population.  Whites in the studies did not experience enough homicides
to be included in the analyses but surely there has to be cities with
large enough White populations where Sharkey's analyses could be
conducted.  Sharkey's analysis is a starting point, not a conclusion.

As compelling and newsworthy the results are, there may be less
here than meets the eye.

>And is the author justified in interpreting it as the former
>rather than latter, as he seems to be?   It's something I struggle with, and
>I'd be curious to hear others' thoughts.  ....Scott

By the way, though Sharkey is affiliated with NYU I don't know him
and hadn't heard about him prior to this article.  It should be noted that
Sharkey is co-author on a previous article in PNAS and he has worked
with and had notable researchers review his paper (e.g., Stephen
Raudenbush of multilevel analysis fame).

-Mike Palij
New York University
[email protected]



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