I was discussing Piaget and schemas today in class and was using the idea of "marriage" as a schema. Typically of course, it's between a man and a woman. So when you consider marriage between two members of the same sex does the idea assimilate into your scheme of "marriage" or do you have to change the schema so much that you have to use accommodation? Just trying to see if this example makes sense when talking about Piaget.
Michael Michael A. Britt, Ph.D. [email protected] http://www.ThePsychFiles.com Twitter: @mbritt --- You are currently subscribed to tips as: [email protected]. To unsubscribe click here: http://fsulist.frostburg.edu/u?id=13090.68da6e6e5325aa33287ff385b70df5d5&n=T&l=tips&o=42633 or send a blank email to leave-42633-13090.68da6e6e5325aa33287ff385b70df...@fsulist.frostburg.edu
