I thought that the treaty of Rome stated that member states of the EU would adopt into their national laws the directives. The CE marking directive and the amending directive would require a CE marking to indicate compliance.
I guess I disagree that selling within one member state would allow a manufacturer not to use the CE marking. Isn;t the whole idea of the EU having all member states adopting laws that are consistent? If one country allowed manufacturers within their member state to sell products in that state that were different from products from other states, would that not defeat the purpose of the treaty of Rome??? My advice in the end would be to test the product to the applicable directives and use the CE marking. Cynthia email [email protected] treg @ world.std.com 08/05/97 03:40 PM To: treg <treg @ world.std.com> @ SMTP cc: Subject: CE Hi, CE mark was at one time a requirement to cross national borders in the EU. A manufacturer of a product destined only for his domestic market would only have to comply with his domestic standards. This would I'm sure equate to part way for a CE mark. Warning labels in only one language and all that. So so simple. Regards Ian [email protected]
