Greek "shmeek"! Do you have a spouse, friend, mirror? Just ask & look? Lance
----- Original Message ----- 
From: "David Miller" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: April 05, 2004 15:13
Subject: RE: [TruthTalk] Grace and Holiness


> David Miller wrote:
> >> 1.  I desire from you an acknowledgment that there
> >> is no Greek scholar, not Mounce or anyone else, who
> >> has translated 1 John 1:8 and Romans 3:23
> >> as you have.  Can you agree with me on this point?
>
> John S. wrote:
> > Sure.  While you are at it, take my clothes and shoes
> > as well.  Seriously,  do you mean to exclude the
> > statement of those greek principles that present
> > to us the idea of continual and continuing action
> > in association with present indicative active?
> > Are you wanting me to concede that?
>
> No, we already agreed on those points.  What I want you to acknowledge
> is that you are unaware of any Greek scholar who translates the passages
> in question as you have.
>
> David Miller wrote:
> >> 2.  If there is no Greek scholar who translates
> >> the context as you have and provides the translation
> >> that you have, do you have any pause whatsoever such
> >> that you would consider some arguments from me about
> >> why you should relinquish your hold on the idea that
> >> in Christ, we continue to be sinners by our very
> >> nature, based upon these particular passages?
>
> John S. wrote:
> > I am having trouble here.  I am not of the belief that
> > scholarship in this case, "translates" context.  They
> > translate words.  Context determines nuance, does it not?
> > It is nuance that BillT  committed to in the recent post
> > regarding the faith(fulness) of Christ.  Isn't our problem
> > a difference of opinion regarding defined nuance?
>
> Not exactly.  A person learned in Greek is much better able to judge the
> context of a Greek passage.  This is because he understands better the
> nuances of word order, the use of articles, and numerous other clues
> that help him better judge what the write might be trying to
> communicate.  Sometimes, however, Greek scholars let their theological
> background get in the way, and they introduce that when they expound
> upon texts.  We sometimes can spot this when we compare different
> translations.  When we have virtually all Greek scholars agreeing upon a
> translation, even when they have different theological backgrounds and
> different Greek manuscripts from which they work, and then we have
> someone else such as yourself arguing that the Greek text actually means
> something else, something other than the way all these Greek scholars
> have translated the text, then we need something more than what you have
> offered us to accept the idea that the Greek gives us better insight
> into understanding these passages.
>
> You seem to be arguing now that it is all a matter of opinion and that
> one opinion is as good as another. I see it differently.  I hear you
> claiming that the Greek reveals a continuing action in these passages,
> and yet I cannot find a Greek scholar or translation committee that
> seems to agree with you.
>
> John S. wrote:
> > If we agree on the verb tense (and I think we do)
> > in the two passages in question, then there is much
> > to talk about.   Namely, all that information that
> > goes into making a sound exegetical decision.
>
> LOL.  John, how can you possibly say this?  Verb tense is not the sole
> information for deciding the meaning of a passage.  There are lots of
> other factors, including consideration of the context and the author's
> known writing style.
>
> Let me give you a modern example by telling you about my going into a
> local grocery store.
>
> I go into the store, and I see this girl behind the counter who is very
> scared.  I say, "are you ok"?  She tells me that she is afraid of being
> robbed.  So I begin to share Christ with her and I lead her in prayer.
> After the prayer, she experiences the joy of the Lord and thanks me for
> sharing the Lord with her.
>
> Now I have written this entire last paragraph in present tense.  Does
> this mean that I am talking about something happening to me right now?
> No.  I am talking about an event in the past, but I speak about it in
> present tense.  Now if we took your approach of simply looking at tense,
> we would come to a faulty conclusion.
>
> Consider also that I could have easily written that entire paragraph in
> the past tense.  It would have communicated the same thing, but the
> engagement with the reader would have been shifted somewhat.  Still, the
> tense is not the all deciding factor here.  The actual thing being
> communicated is what is important.  Our words only approximate that real
> thing that we attempt to communicate.
>
> John S. wrote:
> > Here is the point of difference between the two of us
> > as I see it:
> > You believe that the present tense in these passages
> > does not mean that sin is a continuing issue.
> > I am saying that that is exactly the case.
> > I do admit that scholarship actually says that present
> > indicative active does not necessarily mean continuous
> > action -- thus the possiblity of an honest debate.
> > How am I doing?
>
> Well, the problem is that you seem to think that one opinion is as good
> as another.  You were the one who made the assertion about the Greek
> bringing out a different meaning here.  I am challenging you on whether
> that is true.  You have come half way over, acknowledging that the text
> MIGHT NOT MEAN what you claimed it did.  That is a start.  Nevertheless,
> it seems to me that you do not give much credence to my observation that
> there do not seem to be any Greek scholars translating these two
> passages the way that you have.
>
> I can work with the fact that you recognize that the Greek does not
> necessarily communicate in the way that you have shared, but for the
> sake of being thorough, and at the same time make one last stab at you
> reconsidering your understanding of the Greek, consider the following
> translations that I have consulted concerning the translation of Romans
> 3:23:
>
> (ALT)  For all sinned and fall short of the glory of God,
> (ASV)  for all have sinned, and fall short of the glory of God;
> (BBE)  For all have done wrong and are far from the glory of God;
> (CEV)  All of us have sinned and fallen short of God's glory.
> (Darby)  for all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
> (DRB)  For all have sinned and do need the glory of God.
> (EMTV)  for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,
> (GNB)  everyone has sinned and is far away from God's saving presence.
> (GW)  Because all people have sinned, they have fallen short of God's
> glory.
> (HNV)  for all have sinned, and fall short of the glory of God;
> (KJV)  For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
> (LITV)  for all sinned and fall short of the glory of God,
> (MKJV)  for all have sinned and come short of the glory of God,
> (NASB)  for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,
> (NIV) for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,
> (WEB)  for all have sinned, and fall short of the glory of God;
> (Webster)  For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
> (WNT)  for all alike have sinned, and all consciously come short of the
> glory of God,
> (YLT)  for all did sin, and are come short of the glory of God--
>
> My point is that if the Greek scholars do not translate the text as you
> have, do you really have a solid foundation for telling others that the
> Greek actually means what you have told us that it means?  This fact
> alone does not mean that you are wrong, but if you are boiling your
> argument down to a matter of opinion rather than actual textual or
> contextual arguments, then I think this observation does tip the scales
> of judgment away from your perspective.
>
> Peace be with you.
> David Miller, Beverly Hills, Florida.
>
> ----------
> "Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may
know how you ought to answer every man."  (Colossians 4:6)
http://www.InnGlory.org
>
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"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how you 
ought to answer every man."  (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org

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