I'm wondering...I see this Scripture used alot and I'm kinda
confused....
Did Paul become a homo for sodomite men in order to win
them? Did he sleep with men's wives in order to win them? The husband's or
the wives? Did he steal with the thief in order to win
them?
jt: Are you tweaking
me Kay :)? I know you already know the answer to the above if you
have
read the rest of
what Paul wrote ie
"Put on the new man,
which after God is created in righteousness and true holiness. Wherefore
putting away lying, speak every man truth with his neighbor for we are
members one of another. Be ye angry and sin not, let not the sun go down
upon your wrath, neither give place to the devil. Let him that stole steal
no more, but rather let him labor, working with his hands the thing which is
good, that he may have to give to him that needeth. Let no corrupt
communication proceed out of yuour mouth, but that which is good to the use
of edifying, that it may minister grace unto the hearers; and grieve not the
holy Spirit of God whereby ye are sealed unto the day of redemption. Let all
bitterness, and wrath, and anger, and clamor, and evil speaking, be put away
from you with all malice. And be ye kind one to anotehr, tenderhearted,
forgiving one another, even as God for Christ's sake hath forgiven you" (Eph
4:24-32)
