David, you are probably right concerning the non sequitur of the Gal 4.4
argument.

As to my first paragraph, what I said was that you implied that the
conclusion could only be drawn via a non sequitur. I was not confused enough
to believe that a non sequitur argument necessarily means the conclusion is
false. That is the point I was attempting to make -- not too successfully I
suppose.

Anyway, thanks for clearing this up for us.

Bill


----- Original Message -----
From: "David Miller" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: <[email protected]>
Sent: Thursday, December 30, 2004 8:37 AM
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] The logical nature of Truth


> Bill wrote:
> > Did you notice the smiley face after my comment?
> > That was supposed to indicate a light-heartedness
> > about my words.
>
> Yes, I noticed, which is why I also responded with light-heartedness.  Did
> you notice my smiley face?
>
> Bill wrote:
> > You seem to imply that a conclusion such as the ones
> > drawn below can only be derived via a non sequitor [sic].
> > Just for the sake of argument, What if God did send
> > his eternal Son into the world, would the Text be illogical
> > in stating that truth in words like "God sent his Son into
> > the world"?
>
> We apparently need to define the phrase, "non sequitur."  In the study of
> logic, a non sequitur does not mean that the conclusion is false.  It only
> means that the conclusion does not necessarily follow from the specified
> premises.  For example, someone might observe that the sky has been blue
> during the day everyday he has been alive.  He might conclude from this
that
> the sky will always be blue until his death.  That conclusion might be
true,
> but it is a non sequitur because the conclusion does not necessarily
follow
> from the premises.
>
> The passages you shared do not contradict your belief, but the conclusion
> you have does not necessarily follow from the texts that you have quoted.
> In other words, these passages do not prove your doctrine on eternal
> sonship.  They might be consistent with your belief, but these passages
also
> are consistent with Judy's belief.
>
> Bill wrote:
> > I am not as convinced as you that all the arguments you
> > deemed non sequitors [sic] are indeed non sequitors [sic].
> > In my opinion, the following is not a non sequitor:
> > "But when the time had fully come, God sent forth his Son,
> > born of woman, born under the law" (Galatians 4:4).
> > Jesus was God's Son when He was "sent forth" from the
> > Father to be born of woman.  Christ did not become
> > God's Son at His human birth, He already was God's Son!
>
> This argument most clearly IS a non sequitor.  This does not mean that
your
> belief that Jesus was already God's Son when he was sent is illogically
> reconciable with this passage.  It only means that your belief cannot be
> concluded based upon this passage.  Your conclusion does not necessarily
> follow from the passage.
>
> Note that "born of a woman" is not being argued as having happened in
> eternity past.  Why not?  It is stated there just like, "God sent forth
his
> Son."  You aren't arguing this because you know specifically when he was
> born of a woman based upon history and other passages.  However, when he
was
> begotten as a son is not stated specifically in the passage.  You might
> presume either that it was before this time he was sent forth, or he might
> have been begotten when he was sent forth.
>
> The passage states that the Son was sent forth when the time had fully
come.
> In my mind, saying that the Son was not sent until this time is suggestive
> (but not proof) that the Son was not begotten until this time.
>
> ***** Important Point Here *****
> ------------------------------------
> Judy's conclusion that the Son was not begotten until this time would be a
> non sequitur (he could have been begotten before but not sent), and also
> your conclusion that the Son was begotten prior to this time is a non
> sequitur (it could be that the Son was begotten at the time he was sent).
> ***************************
>
> Bill Taylor wrote:
> > In reference to this bullet you gave an analogous example
> > of the non sequitor fallacy and then you asked the question:
> > "So why would anyone think that the phrase, "God sent forth
> > his son" would mean that he was functioning in the role of son
> > of God from eternity past?" The answer is contained in the verse
> > itself: it was at a particular point in time, i.e., "when the time had
> > fully come," that God sent forth this Son. Here you have a Father
> > and a Son and a specific point in time when the Father sends his
> > Son. The only reason to argue that this is a non sequitor is if you
> > are prejudiced against the idea that the Father could have an eternal
> > Son, since this verse argues as decisively for a pre-existent son
> > as Ps 2.7 might be understood to argue for a temporal Son;
>
> No, this passage does not specify anything about WHEN the son was
begotten.
> Psalm 2:7 does address this question by saying, "THIS DAY have I begotten
> you."  Psalm 2:7 points to a specific point in time, whereas it could be
in
> respect to Gal. 4:4 that the Son had always existed and was never
begotten.
>
> Please reconsider the definition of non sequitur, and understand that in
> relation to this passage, your conclusion and Judy's conclusion are both
non
> sequiturs.  Neither conclusion logically follows from the premises
outlines
> in this passage, but the passage is consonant with both conclusions.
>
> Having said this, I do think the passage is more highly suggestive of
Judy's
> position, because it points to a specific period of time when God sent
forth
> his son, and that specific point in time is when he was born of a woman
(not
> the resurrection, and not eternity past).  The only reason Judy's position
> also is a non sequitur in relation to this passage is because the passage
> says nothing at all about when the son was actually begotten.  It simply
> speaks of the son being sent forth, so the actual begetting of the son may
> have happened at an earlier point in time without contradicting anything
in
> the passage.
>
> Bill Taylor wrote:
> > after all, in 2.7 you have the same variables: a Father,
> > a Son, and a specific point in time, when the Father
> > begets the Son.
>
> Good point.  The two passages may very well be related to each other.  In
> fact, I personally think they are.  The specific point in time in Gal. 4:4
> is when he was begotten of the woman, and Psalm 2:7 does not specify
exactly
> when but it is clear that it was on "THIS DAY."  If we consider both
> together, it is logical to infer that perhaps this day when he was born of
> the woman, and this day referred to in Psalm 2:7, are the same day, the
day
> of Christ's birth.
>
> Bill Taylor wrote:
> > One must examine the weight of the evidence one over against
> > the other to conclude which of these verses clarifies the other.
> > I believe it is reasonable to conclude, given the language of these
> > other Son-sent passages as well as Hebrews 1.2 ("through whom
> > he made the universe") and many other passages, that God did
> > send his eternally divine Son into the world in the fullness of time
> > to save sinners. When I consider further that Ps 2.7 is also quoted
> > in Acts 13.33 in the context of Jesus' resurrection, I am made all
> > the more confident in my conclusion.
>
> If you read Acts 13:34, he says, "AND AS CONCERNING THAT HE RAISED HIM
FROM
> THE DEAD."  The phrase "AND..." suggests something else.  This was said
> immediately following his quote of Psalm 2:7.  So it seems pretty clear to
> me that he is speaking about Jesus being born and raised for a purpose of
> God in Acts 13:33.  This is the context of Psalm 2, Christ being raised up
> to rule the earth.  Certainly the resurrection gives enormous testimony to
> that, but I think it is another non sequitur to conclude that Acts 13:33

> refers specifically to the time of his resurrection.  This is a straw man
> argument that some of those articles Jonathan posted had constructed and
> torn down to make their argument appear to be right.  They argued against
> the viewpoint that the resurrection was when the son was begotten, and
this
> is not the viewpoint of Judy or of any serious theologian that I have
read.
>
> Peace be with you.
> David Miller.
>
>
> ----------
> "Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may
know how you ought to answer every man."  (Colossians 4:6)
http://www.InnGlory.org
>
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