Judy Taylor wrote:
DAVEH: My current comments are in
RED.........
No, the question itself...you lost me. But, I
have PS. 82 open and my translation (Complete Jewish Bible)
says...Elohim [gods, judges]. I
think what you're referring to is the .....you are gods part, right?
DAVEH: Yes, that is how I read it
as well. Perry mentioned that it was referring to judges who judge in
behalf of God (I hope I've got that right, Perry). But if that were
the case, I don't understand why Jesus would refer to theos (Jn
10:34&35), suggesting a deity to be worshiped, to be used in his
defense. DavidM seemingly gave a pretty good logical explanation
yesterday that I will ponder when I have more time. I'm just not
sure labeling them as judges quite does justice to the meaning
of Ps 82. Why would the author do that IF he could have used judges
instead. Maybe I should be asking the question....would judges
have been a better term to use....if not, why not? Had PS 82
used judges, I doubt Jesus would have referenced it in his
defense.
jt: Why not Daveh?
DAVEH: IF gods in Ps 82 had not related to some facet beyond
being simply judges, then Jesus' retort would not have held much
weight....His detractors would have simply said the same things TTers
are saying to me about the meaning of gods in Ps 82.
Wasn't he speaking at Solomon's
Porch in the temple so we can assume there were some Jewish leaders
there, (the ones ordained to judge the people on God's behalf)? An
alternative is Psalm 96:5 which says "For all the gods of the nations
are idols" but I don't believe
Jesus would identify himself with
that, do you?
DAVEH: My point exactly. He identified himself with the gods of Ps 82
instead of 96:5. Were the gods of Ps 82 idols? .....I don't think
so.....do you?
--
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Dave Hansen
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
http://www.langlitz.com
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