RE: [TruthTalk] Private Interpretation

[Slade Henson]

Great. How does one interpret privately and how does one do it correctly?

 

-- slade

-----Original Message-----
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]On Behalf Of Judy Taylor
Sent: Saturday, 15 January, 2005 12.53
To: TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org
Cc: TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Private Interpretation

Yes I did allude to 2 Peter 1:20 because my belief is that "all scripture is given by inspiration of God" so this

would include 1 John 3:4

 

On Sat, 15 Jan 2005 12:46:17 -0500 "Slade Henson" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes:

Are you saying that you were not alluding to 2 Peter 1:20? If you were alluding to it, please define what you believe the passage refers to.

 

-- slade

From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]On Behalf Of Judy Taylor

The original post is an object lesson in "private interpretation" 

God's Word clearly and plainly says: "SIN IS LAWLESSNESS" (1 John 3:4)

John says it's not and tells me that I don't have a clue as to the practice of lawlessness so here is a contradiction.

I choose to believe God's Word and IMO John has his own private interpretation of both sin and lawlessness.  jht

 

 

 

On Sat, 15 Jan 2005 11:46:25 -0500 "Slade Henson" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes:

Your post (that you could have remembered writing easier than me retrieving it) is attached to this email.

 

So we don't begin with a rabbit trail, What is your definition of Private Interpretation. 

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From: Judy Taylor
Sent: Saturday, 15 January, 2005 09.52
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Private Interpretation
If you will send me my quote in the balance and context I wrote it in Slade - I will be glad to oblige.  judyt 

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On Sat, 15 Jan 2005 09:45:43 -0500 "Slade Henson" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes: 

What, Judy, is your interpretation of "Private Interpretation?"