Is It "Love" or "Love"?
John 21:15-17
Another tactic of the "Greekmongers" is to reveal "shades of meaning of the original Greek text" or "nuggets" which are "impossible" to find in the English text. The quintessential passage to "prove" this is John 21:15-17 where they contrast one Greek word for "love" with another Greek word. The game here is they claim the Greek word "agapao" (#25) means a deep, selfless, divine love while the term "phileo" (#5368) refers to a weaker friendly or affectionate type of love. The Greek-lovers" build a dramatic and "powerful" message contrasting these two (self-defined) Greek terms, "enlightening" the ignorant, common believer of their grasp of the "original text." There is only one problem in their elaborate exposition, it is based on nothing but pure speculation!
"Phileo," supposedly the weaker "love," is found several times in the gospel of John. If it only refers to "affection" or a "fondness" type of love as the Greek--junkies claim, then surely it is used as such elsewhere, isn't it? Let's see. Its first use is in John 5:20,
"For the Father loveth the Son, and sheweth him all things that himself doeth: and he will shew him greater works than these, that ye may marvel."
Are we to believe that the Father only had a fondness and friendly love for His Son?
Here, is an interesting contrast. Compare the terms for "love" in John 13:20, 20:2 and John 21:7 in your Strong's or Young's. In all three verses John is referred to as the disciple "Jesus loved," but what is significant is in 13:30 the word is "agape," in 20:2 the word is "phileo" while in 21:7 the word is "agape" again! Did Christ's love for John weaken between 13:20 and 20:2 and then grow again by 21:7?
Judy Taylor <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
On Mon, 14 Feb 2005 09:54:23 EST [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:In a message dated 2/14/2005 1:00:46 AM Pacific Standard Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:jt: You completely negate the ministry of the Holy Spirit in all of this Bill. Jesus gave no qualifications having to do with language when he said the Comforter would reveal truth to His disciples and it is my belief that He is able to give understanding to all who are in Christ Jesus whether or not they know Hebrew and Greek.regardless.
JD: You know, I am completely confused, here. Did not Judy - just a couple of days ago -- give us a lesson in Greek? Quoting and writing about Greek meaning and implications?jt: Not me JD, you are mistaken. I make no pretense of being a Gk scholar but at times I do look up words in Strongs Concordance.JD: But more than this, how is it that in your thinking, Judy, God's Spirit cannot work through hermeneutics and contextual studies of the original text?jt: I guess He can if He wants to but where does one find an "original text?"We are told to study to show ourselves approved .... Surely God is at work in this diligent "paying of attention." Paul suggests that God's Indwelling has everything to do with all that we might do in working out this thing we call salvation. Johnjt: to me "studying to show ourselves approved" has more to do with "rightly dividing the Word of Truth" and being a "doer of the Word" rather than a deceived hearer only.
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