Let the spirit of revelation enrich you greatly.
Just what is this "spirit of revelation" and where did it come from? Is it some sort of glory spout where the blessings come out?
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Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. | |
Judy Taylor <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
From: "David Miller" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Izzy, I loved your original post about Jesus' nature, but this point in your second post needs reconsideration please. :-)Izzy wrote:
Who was the first person to sin? It would appear that Eve was. However she did not sin because she was deceived (much like a child prior to the age of reason).DM: Eve was not deceived like a child prior to the age of reason, but rather she was deceived like the angels who left their estate and followed Lucifer. In other words, she bought his sales pitch hook, line, and sinker. Therefore, her sin was more grave than that of Adam's. Consider the following passage:jt: The angels who left their first estate made a choice to follow Lucifer whereas a deceived person does not know that they are deceived. Also God gave the command to Adam before Eve's creation and when she was listening to the serpent Adam was standing right there with her. Yes the woman was in the transgression and she was deceived but the man (Adam) did not take a stand for righteousness did he? Under the Law of Moses if a wife or a daughter made an unwise decision the husband/father could intercede for her negating it so that the woman was not made to endure the harsh consequences of a wrong choice. This is taking God given responsibility in caring for the weaker gender. However, Adam did not do this, rather he chose to disobey God with her though he was not deceived and this is much worse. Even under the Levitical Law there was no sacrifice for presumptuous sin. So why is Jesus born the seed of the woman only? Why not the seed of the man also if he was to have a sin nature anyway?1 Timothy 2:13-15
(13) For Adam was first formed, then Eve.
(14) And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression.
(15) Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety.Notice how it says that the woman was IN THE TRANSGRESSION. Then this passage connects her salvation being in her role to man in childbearing (the man is not without the woman). Compare the same author writing along the same theme:jt: I have a sinking feeling that if we continue in this train of thought we will wind up in SLC at the temple with their celestial marriage where the woman is completely and totally dependent on the man - I don't think so; Jesus liberated women and both women and men are saved by childbearing - that is the bearing of the Child of Promise which BTW the man had no part in. Why?????1 Corinthians 11:9-10
(9) Neither was the man created for the woman; but the woman for the man. (10) For this cause ought the woman to have power on her head because of the angels.jt: The above deals with Corinthian social customs; (head coverings and short haired women being prostitutes) and is no longer a relevant David and since the angels that sinned are being held in chains why should they be a problem???Consider the angels in this second passage as being the angels that sinned. Do you see the whole picture now? Pray and be at peace in the Spirit of the Lord. Let the spirit of revelation enrich you greatly.Grace and Peace,judyt
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