----- Original Message -----
Sent: March 04, 2005 12:25
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] On Barth
jt: Did Moses have the originals? Didn't he
break the original Law tablet?
And what of the ark of the Covenant? Was
the Law in there a copy or the original...?
Did Jesus cut them any slack because all they had was
copies and the Scribes just might
have left out a word or put one in that didn't belong
there? Nah! There were no excuses.
He told them "How can ye believe which receive honor
one of another and seek not the
honor that coes from God only?" (sounds just like
orthodoxy doesn't it?) "For had you
believed Moses, you would have believed me, for he
wrote of me. But if you believe not his
writings, how shall you believe my words? (original
autographs didn't mean squat)
(John 5:44,46,47)
and later he says to God's people "He that is
of God heareth God's words; ye therefore
hear them not because you are not of God" (John 8:47)
God does not use "originals" in His word either
Did the Apostles carry the originals on their
persons?
[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
Kevin:
do unequivically hold to Plenary Verbal Inspiration as the
Church of all ages has held
VPI has nothing to do with the Originals
Never has.
John:
Of course not
-- because we never have had the originals.
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