The expansion of the ministry (to the
Gentiles) is first given to Peter in a vision sometime
after the cross.
Peter was sent to the house of Cornelius who was a
worshipper who gave alms and who God knew about.
However
God was never completely exclusive and Jesus confronted the
Jews with the fact that God passed over a lot of widows in Israel and
Elijah was sent to one in the city of Sidon; also there were many
lepers in Israel and Elijah healed Naaman a Syrian, (because the Jews
were covenant breakers) which made the Jews so angry they wanted to
push him off the brow of a hill.
No
kidding -------- but that does not change the
fact of His (Chrsit) statement that His ministry was one to the
Jew and not the Gentile AND JESUS SAID, I WAS SENT ONLY
TO THE LOST SHEEP OF ISRAEL MATT 10:24.
Deal with it.
I'm trying - Matt 10:24 says "A
disciple is not above his teacher, nor a servant above his master" -
did you mean to include that? and Mark 10:24 is about how hard it is
for those who have riches to enter the Kingdom.
`
When Jesus sends his 12 out on
mission, they are sent to the Jews and "not to the Gentiles
) Matt 10:5,6.
Lost sheep
(covenant breakers) of the house of Israel.
No kidding.
Are you being patronizing
JD?
In Matt 15:24, Christ tells us
that His mission is to the Jews and not to anyone
else."
He
said healing was the children's bread (children of the covenant) but
did he or did he not heal the woman's daughter?
HE SAID I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST
SHEEP OF ISRAEL.
He said that but he healed
the daughter of a Syrian woman because of her faith and the Jews
rejected Him because of their unbelief.... so God is not as legalistic
and locked in about this as you are it
seems.
Why? How can this be?
Because of John 4:7 -- "salvation is of the
Jews."
Only because God's oracles were entrusted to them
preserved by them for the rest of us; salvation is FOR whosoever will
come.
Of course and why are arguing with
me about this, again?
Because you make it sound as
though you have a Jew fixation or something of that
sort.
When Christ speaks of the "few there be" who
will accept the salvation offered to them,
He is speaking to the Jews and of the
Jews.
No His Words are
for every generation even for those who are far off. As
many as God the Father sends Him.
Read the parable
of the sower JD. The field is the world.
I don't know if I have used the word
"exclusive" in anything I have written. If I have, that
was a mistake.
That does not change the fact that
He came to the Jew only His words not mine.
For the first 3
1/2yrs of His ministry but His Words are eternal, they will judge
us in the last day (Jn 12:48) and they are not for Jews only because
in Him there is no Jew, Greek, bond, or free.
Does He intend to included all of
mankind? Absolutely -- and He
does.
Glad he has your permission JD
this is all you have to say in
making your point and you wonder why I see rebellion and stubbornness
in you, Judy.
But there
is a politic to this inclusion that began with Adam and came down to
the world through Israel.
God is not and never has been
political; He is Sovereign Lord over all mankind.
What ?? !! Do you think I am
accusing Him of running for mayor ??!!!
But, o.k., I will use a
different word - PROCESS.
The picture of the
uncountable multitudes in Rev. 7 is a blessed hope for us all and is
UNDENIABLE,
folks (in a meaningful sense
of the word.)
If this is
where you were headed with all that rhetoric about Jews JD - you
missed the mark BIG TIME (emphasis)
Judgment is for all who are lawless,
disobedient, stiff necked, stubborn, beer drinking, and
rebellious.
Der-ahh !!
I should get three points for this
slam dunk !!!! Pastor Smithson
In
your dreams maybe.....
