As you may know, "precise" really isn't a good word in this context. But wasn't it you, Deegan, who was arguing AGAINST the "precise" commentary for these two words? Of course it was --- so now, are we changing course in the middle of the stream, just to continue the argument.
If you stopped Ranting & Raving long enough to listen maybe you might actually correctly understand what is being stated. At that point at least we would be discussing the same thing.
I thought imprecise meant "AGAINST" precise, but not in your book?
Without the "Illumination" (Bible word) we can NEVER understand no matter how many Letters come after our name!
[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
In a message dated 4/21/2005 4:20:33 AM Pacific Daylight Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
Or the Greek wordphileo� or agapao�!
So the words are Imprecise and that is why we need scholars to be the high priests of Gods words to threw us a scrap once in a while.
Without scholars, you wouldn't have your KJV. By the way -- agapao is a work horse word and less "precise" than "phileo" or "storge." As you may know, "precise" really isn't a good word in this context. But wasn't it you, Deegan, who was arguing AGAINST the "precise" commentary for these two words? Of course it was --- so now, are we changing course in the middle of the stream, just to continue the argument. Anyway, agapao is used, as a matter of fact, in a number of differing ways (including on rare occasion, sexual love). When context is considered, the meaning can be very "precise."
I, personally, do not believe that Peter was offering Christ a lesser love when he answered back with "phileo." In Peter's mind, no doubt, he was presenting Christ with a word that better described his feelings for the Christ.. If there was NO difference at all between the two words, why the exchange?
JD
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