The point of my post is this:  why do you think your interpretation of the "truth" IS the truth?  Here is your understanding of what I have written:
 
My answer was yes, I do,
but what I hear from John is that anybody who has any assurance regarding
this truth that cannot be wrong, DM
 
Your words above speak of assurance!!!!!   I do not attack the assurance of your "knowing."   I have the same !!!   My words were these: 
 
when we confuse our beliefs with that which
> "simply cannot be wrong"  -  it is pride IN EVERY
> INSTANCE, whether the presentation happens
> to make sense or not,  that goes before us.  JD
 
And you challenge what I have just written (and you misunderstanding of same) thusly:  You present the case that the presence of assurance in a truth that cannot be wrong    A comparison of the the two messages shows that we are not talking about the same thing!   to demonstrate that difference, go to your explanation immediately above ("you present  .....").   God to " .....  assurance in a truth ..." and change that to read   "assurance in my personal interpretation of scripture ......"
 
Hoping that this helps. 
Jd
 
 
 
 
-----Original Message-----
From: David Miller <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: [email protected]
Sent: Mon, 11 Jul 2005 23:39:18 -0400
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Re:John 16:13,14

John wrote:
> i say that you know this is misrepresentation:   what
> I hear from John is that anybody who has assurance
> regarding truth is operating in pride.  Now, what will
> happen next.   I will challenge you to produce my words.
> You will not be able to do this

Here are your words, John:
> ... when we confuse our beliefs with that which
> "simply cannot be wrong"  -  it is pride IN EVERY
> INSTANCE, whether the presentation happens
> to make sense or not,  that goes before us.
>
> I am saying that when you or anyone (myself) equate
> personal understanding (there is no other kind)
> with THE biblical message or with "scripture,"  that
> is pride which  is talking and nothing else.
> ...
> when we present our interpretations as being
> without the possibility of being wrong,  we
> speak out of pride.

Now the context of my quote is a response to Lance who was asking:
> 2. Do either of you not anticipate some truth,
> absolute in nature (God's Truth), to be forthcoming
> through the Spirit-facilitated reading of His Holy Word?

So truth is defined in this context as that which is absolute in nature, 
God's Truth, which cannot be wrong.  Do we anticipate such truth to be 
forthcoming through the reading of His Holy Word?  My answer was yes, I do, 
but what I hear from John is that anybody who has any assurance regarding 
this truth that cannot be wrong, this absolute truth of God, would be 
operating in pride.  Your comments I quote above speak of this, do they not? 
You say that there is no understanding except personal understanding.  You 
warn against confusing this "personal" understanding we glean from reading 
the Word with the Biblical message itself.  You present the case that the 
presence of assurance in a truth that cannot be wrong would be a sin, it 
would be pride raising its ugly head.

If I have misunderstood you, John, then please teach us what you believe. 
There is no need to accuse me of dishonesty.  Tell us straight.  If I have 
assurance regarding an absolute truth of God which I gleaned through reading 
the Holy Word of God, and I teach this according to my assurance, 
representing that this truth is God's truth and hence has no possibility of 
being wrong, is this pride?

Peace be with you.
David Miller. 

----------
"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how 
you ought to answer every man."  (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org

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