David Miller wrote:
Maybe it is you who do not understand what this
New Testament Pharisee meant when he said,
"Christ is the end of the law for righteousness"
(Romans 10:4).
John wrote:
What do you have in mind?
Well, you had started out by writing:
The church was never "right" based on its
collective understanding of the Message.
Yet, apostle Paul wrote that the church of the living God is the pillar and
ground of the truth (1 Tim. 3:15). If the church was never "right" in its
collective understanding, then where is the truth to be found after Christ
ascended? My perspective is that the truth continues on earth, found in the
body of Christ. Hence, 1 Cor. 12 argues that Christ is not like the mute
idols which the Corinthians had previously followed, but rather Christ has
the power of speech, and it is through the members of his body (his church,
the collective of saints in a local community).
You speak of the understanding that "Christ is the end of the law for
righteousness" as being something that would cause Jews to stop keeping
their feast days and sabbath observances. Yet, the very man who wrote this
statement was, in fact, an observant Pharisee who continued to keep all of
these things. Therefore, it seems to me that your perspective of the
meaning of this phrase is at odds with the author of the statement. I would
suggest that the word "end" here must have the same connotation as when
Jesus said, "I am the Alpha and Omega." It does not mean extinction or
termination of the law, but rather refers to the fulfillment of the goal.
It carries a meaning more analogous to how we speak of the "end of man,"
referring not to man's termination or removal, but rather to his ultimate
purpose and fulfillment in life, his reason for existing.
Peace be with you.
David Miller.
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"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how you
ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org
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