Dave,
I understand that in 1611 "perfect" meant what "complete" means today.
So, what if you re-read that verse in today's language?
If you have a Strong's dictionary, read the definition for "perfect" (greek
5046). After reading it, do you still think this is a commandment to be
"perfect" as in "sinless", or, "without flaw"? If so, why?
Perry
DAVEH: If that is not possible, then why the commandment to do so? Mt
5:48........
*Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is
perfect.*
.........Doesn't it seem odd to have a commandment that is not obtainable?
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"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how you
ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org
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