-------------- Original message --------------
From: Judy Taylor <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
 
 
On Fri, 16 Dec 2005 04:01:08 +0000 [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
1.  Where does it say that man is to be stoned for having sex with a single woman or a prostitute? 
 
Who said anything about single or prostitute? The woman was committing adultery which means she
was married or else she was carrying on with a married man, either way both were to be stoned.  
 
How do you get that either were married? 
 
If there was no marriage involved then it would have been fornication.
 
And how do you know that.   Nothing in the text that tells you this ....  nothing.  Unless, of course, you are about to tell me that you have gone outside the word of God to find your answer?  Is this what you are about to tell me.  
2..  How do you know that the man was not stoned? 
 
They were to stone both, and they came to Jesus asking for some kind of an OK, so why would they
bring just one of them?
 
 
Why am I not allowed to speculate -- ala Judy  --- that the man was already stoned or that he would be dealt with at a later time? 
 
Why would you want to add your own speculation to what is written?
 
What is written?   Really.  And where do you find   in "what is written"   that they were not going to punish the man ??  You have your speculation and I have mine.  What is not speculation is this:  " You who have no sin cast the first stone."   Ask your pastor what he thinks.   Don't give him any hints  --  just ask him.   You and I both know what he will tell you.  
 
 
 
 
3.  Who are you accusing in the subject line above? 
 
What does it say JD?  TruthTalk  ??!!

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