Re: [TruthTalk] Was Jesus of God's Nature?

[Taylor]

CD wrote  >  The scripture does show a difference between to first man Adam and the second man Adam. Can you point out those differences to help us clear the air so to speak.Thanks   Hi Dean,   I can begin to do that tonight, Dean, and if you want more I can go into greater detail later. Romans 5 is, of course, the primary source for answering your question, along with passages in the epistles to the Corinthians. The differences between the two Adam's are best understood in the context of their similarities. In Romans 5, Paul employs the Hebrew idea of "the one and the many" to express the fact that both Adams are representative of the entire human race. I will include a literal translation of Romans 5.15-19 below. Please notice the insertion of the definite article --"the" -- in my translation of the Greek text, as it does not always appear in our English translations. 15 But the free gift is not like the offense. For if by the one man's offense the many died, much more the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abounded to the many. 16 And the gift is not like that which came through the one who sinned. For the judgment which came from one offense resulted in condemnation, but the free gift which came from many offenses resulted in justification. 17 For if by the one man's offense death reigned through the one, much more those who receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ.) 18 Therefore, as through the one man's offense judgment came to all men, resulting in condemnation, even so through the one Man's righteous act the free gift came to all men, resulting in justification of life. 19 For as by the one man's disobedience the many were made sinners, so also by the one Man's obedience the many shall be made righteous. Here we discover that the "many" of the first man are the same as the "many" of the second Man, the difference being that where the first man brought death, condemnation, and judgment to "the many," which is "all"; the second Man brought an abundance of grace, righteousness, and justification of life to "the many," which is also "all." Hence the two are similar in that they are both representatives of "all men," but they are different in what they produced for that same group of "all men." Bill   ----- Original Message ----- From: Dean Moore To: TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org Sent: Monday, January 30, 2006 11:25 AM Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Was Jesus of God's Nature?       ----- Original Message ----- From: Taylor To: TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org Sent: 1/29/2006 10:07:08 PM Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Was Jesus of God's Nature?   If Jesus was not of the first Adam, he was not his descendant and, therefore, was not qualified to bear his name. You and yours are way to American in this regard: you have no respect for heritage, lineage, kinship, family ties. To know the Jesus of Scripture, you need know him as he was in his culture, Dean -- not yours.   Bill cd: Don't know where I lost all this respect for the items mentioned above-but the scripture does show a difference between to first man Adam and the second man Adam. Can you point out those differences to help us clear the air so to speak.Thanks Bill?   -- This message has been scanned for viruses and dangerous content by Plains.Net, and is believed to be clean.