On 05/23/2011 12:19 PM, "Cédric Krier" <[email protected]>" wrote: > On 22/05/11 12:39 +0200, Paul J Stevens wrote:
>> looks to me like the timedelta should be subtracted rather than added, >> right? Or am I missing something? > > No, it computes the delta between the amount at 60 days and the amount at 90 > days. I'm very sorry, Cédric, but that's just a complete non-answer. I'm pretty sure I understand very well the meaning of the query. So to restate my question: what is the actual intended purpose of the aged accounts balance, if not to determine what receivables and payables are overdue? Since the maturity date is defined as the invoice date offset with the payment term, what could possibly be the reason for using time-windows in the *future* - which is currently the case? -- ________________________________________________________________ Paul J Stevens pjstevns @ gmail, twitter, skype, linkedin NFG Net Facilities Group BV___________________________Utrecht_NL -- [email protected] mailing list
