I think I am missing something. You seem to be saying that you want to be able to do a join without declaring the foreign key in the schema, is this correct? Why not just declare the relationship and go from there? Or am I missing your point?
Scott -- Scott Eade Backstage Technologies Pty. Ltd. http://www.backstagetech.com.au .Mac Chat/AIM: seade at mac dot com On 9/02/2003 12:03 AM, "Marc Lustig" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > Scott, problem is this works only for tables that are referenced by the > foreign key. It should be possible to join two different tables and retrieve > the respective columns of both tables as well (not only join them in the > WHERE clause). > > Marc --------------------------------------------------------------------- To unsubscribe, e-mail: [EMAIL PROTECTED] For additional commands, e-mail: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
