RE: Why Arabic shaping?

[Christopher J Fynn]

Marco Cimarosti wrote:
> So a devil's advocate may ask: if the Arabic shaping forms of 
> Kaaf have been
> unified in the same code point, then why Latin uppercase and lowercase K
> haven't been unified as well? And, conversely, if Latin case variant have
> been assigned to different code points, why not Arabic shape variants?

Isn't it that Arabic shape variants can be determined from context while Latin case 
variants cannot be? (Sometimes headings etc. in Latin script are written in all caps.)