> As an analogy, albeit a rather silly one, if (in mathematics) I put a > dot over a (single-letter) variable name to indicate (say) first > derivative or something, I would have to put an /extra/ dot over i, > would I not? Does that not make it "conceptually" dotless, even though > it's rendered with a dot?
Since i is soft-dotted presumably you'd take off a dot, and then put on a dot. Clear as mud! -- Jon Hanna | Toys and books <http://www.hackcraft.net/> | for hospitals: | <http://santa.boards.ie>
