----- Message d'origine ----- De: "Doug Ewell" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> Compare these to the Greek distinction between Ï and "word-final" Ï. I > would have assumed that current Greek usage of Ï and Ï is parallel to > 18th-century English usage of Å and s, but TUS says (p. 176) that "use > of the final sigma is a matter of spelling convention," so that > assumption is probably overly simplistic. I'm rather suprised by this sentence from TUS, I always learned (in high school only note) the use Ï in final position. When may a Ï appear in the final position? Who uses this convention? This sentence seems to have been introduced in TUS 4.0 (I would like an annotated version of TUS showing the difference from its preceding major version). P. A.
