"John Hudson" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote: > > > While the fact that it's called Phoenician script doesn't prove anything > > about its origin, it might be considered indicative of the path through > > which the script was borrowed.
> Indeed. This is the point I made earlier: Greco-centric European scholarship of writing > systems calls the script 'Phoenician' because the Greeks derived their alphabet from trade > contact with the Phoenicians. As should be obvious from recent debate, semiticists look at > the old Canaanite writing systems in a different way. So are "Greco-centric European scholars" / "Indo-Europeanists" the user community which some were trying to say doesn't exist? - Chris