> On 26 Oct. 2016, at 3:26 pm, Dr. Hawkins <doch...@gmail.com> wrote:
> 
> 
> ON a "wait 0 with messages", does this effectively put the next line in the
> queue as the last (first? random?) entry for the current (next?)
> millisecond?

I think I'll need an interpreter to understand that question sorry ;-)
> 
> I had always blithely figured that it would resume once there were no
> eligible messages, but that doesn't sound like the case.

It checks to see if there’s a message to handle at the current time
handles it (removing it from the head of the queue) if there is
checks if the wait time has elapsed
if not it iterates again

So if you had two messages in the queue scheduled for exactly the same time and 
only did a wait 0 with messages then only one would be sent.

Cheers

Monte
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