I
probably just got confused by your naming convention. Can you repeat your
question with clearer names?
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Brendan
-----Original Message-----On 8/29/05, CONNER, BRENDAN (SBCSI) <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
From: Rick Reumann [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Monday, August 29, 2005 2:50 PM
To: MyFaces Discussion
Subject: Re: Concerning DataModel usage plus overhead?RickYou set up employee to have a managed reference to employees. Then, once control reaches Employee.edit(), its reference to employees will have been set up already by JSF.
But employee has its managed bean reference to "employee" (EmployeeAction.java). The "edit" is a method in EmployeeAction.java not in EmployeesAction.java (EmployeesAction is the one that generated the initial DataModel)..
Are you saying 'employee' can have a managed reference to both "EmployeesAction" AND "EmployeeAction"? I didn't know you could have a single reference with more than one backing bean associate to it?
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