On Thu, 23 Jun 2005, Loren Wilton spake: > Also from almost complete ignorance: it seems unlikely since 3.0. > Previously the bayes database had the actual tokens and counts in it. Since > 3.0 the database has a hash of the token. I don't konw that the hashes from > two different systems would end up being the same for the same tokens.
Why would they not be? It's just an SHA-1 hash... -- `It's as bizarre an intrusion as, I don't know, the hobbits coming home to find that the Shire has been taken over by gangsta rappers.'
