Kilopascal wrote in USMA 18367: >I understand that since 1959 all inches are equal to 25.4 mm. My point is, >if the BWMA does not recognise referencing FFU to SI, then they have to >accept the situation before the FFU was defined according to SI. And that >being the case, my rhetorical question would be, is how do they name these >variations to keep them from being confused? > >The BWMA wants to claim, according to what Han posted, that inches have >never been redefined. If so, then how do they account for the national >variations and also the change from the national variations to the >definition of 1959? To me, that counts as a redefinition. A redefinition >that resulted in a physical change to the inches, creating enough of a >difference to allow for the continuos use of the US survey foot in surveying >even up to today > >I hope Han is able to draw an explanation out of them. I for sure want to >know. > >John
Thanks for the explanation. I should have known that you knew the history. Joe Joseph B.Reid 17 Glebe Road West Toronto M5P 1C8 TEL. 416-486-6071
