>john mercer >If a British pub sold there beer in a 568 ml glass >with no fluid oz marking on it but had a sign saying 568 ml = 1 pint >would there be a problem?
British beer glasses do not have fluid ounce markings. If the glass has a marking, it will refer to 'pint'. It might be legal to provide a supplementary reference to millilitres. I am not aware of a law that forbids it.
