Martyn Hodgson wrote: > The grounds for Eph's view seems to be that only the very wealthy (ie the > 16thC Spanish) could afford firsts which had been through rigorous quality > checks (with high wastage) to ensure uniformity - we know that this was
Is the underlying assumption that because there was a lot of gold coming into Spain from the New World, all Spaniards were wealthy? HP To get on or off this list see list information at http://www.cs.dartmouth.edu/~wbc/lute-admin/index.html
