Posted by Eugene Volokh:
What do you do with a court opinion like this?

   (Warning: Pretty technical legal stuff ahead.)

   Florida has enacted the Florida Religious Freedom Restoration Act,
   which presumptively mandates religious exemptions from generally
   applicable laws that end up substantially burdening religious beliefs.
   (The government can rebut this presumption by showing that denying the
   exemption is necessary to serve a compelling government interest.) A
   Boca Raton city ordinance bars vertical markers on graves in a
   city-run cemetery; some people sued, claiming that this substantially
   burdened their religious beliefs, because their beliefs led them to
   prefer vertical markers.

   The Florida Supreme Court [1]rejected this claim, and I have no
   objection to this. But here's how it rejected it -- on pp. 18-19 the
   court says this (paragraph break added):

     The protection afforded to the free exercise of religiously
     motivated activity under the FRFRA is broader than that afforded by
     the decisions of the United States Supreme Court for two
     interrelated reasons. First, the FRFRA expands the free exercise
     right as construed by the Supreme Court in Smith because it
     reinstates the Court's pre-Smith holdings by applying the
     compelling interest test to neutral laws of general application.

     Second, under the FRFRA the definition of protected "exercise of
     religion" subject to the compelling state interest test includes
     any act or refusal to act whether or not compelled by or central to
     a system of religious belief. The legislative history of the FRFRA
     suggests that in order to state a claim that the government has
     infringed upon the free exercise of religion, a plaintiff must only
     establish that the government has placed a substantial burden on a
     practice motivated by a sincere religious belief.

   SO far so good. But then on p. 21, the court says:

     [W]e hold that a substantial burden on the free exercise of
     religion is one that either compels the religious adherent to
     engage in conduct that his religion forbids or forbids him to
     engage in conduct that his religion requires.

   So what are courts and government officials to do? At first, the court
   says that religious motivation is enough to presumptively get an
   exemption, and that it doesn't matter whether the action or refusal to
   act is compelled by one's religious belief. But then it holds that the
   question is whether the action is compelled or forbidden (which means
   that refusal to act is compelled) by religious belief. Seems pretty
   inconsistent to me.

References

   1. http://www.flcourts.org/sct/sctdocs/ops/sc01-2206.pdf

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