Posted by Eugene Volokh:
Free Speech, Content-Based Laws, and Legislative Motives:
http://volokh.com/archives/archive_2007_07_15-2007_07_21.shtml#1184622057


   As I discussed [1]earlier, First Amendment precedents generally makes
   conveying facts and opinions into a constitutionally immunized
   activity. Normally, the government may punish people for causing
   various harms, directly or indirectly. But it generally may not punish
   speakers when the harms are caused by what the speaker said -- by the
   persuasive, informative, or offensive force of the facts or opinions
   expressed (unless, of course, the speech falls within one of the First
   Amendment exceptions, such as incitement, false statements of fact,
   threats, and the like).

   This is, of course, quite compatible with the Court's general
   jurisprudence of content-based restrictions; it just equally covers
   laws that are content-based as applied and laws that are content-based
   on their face. And this principle makes sense, because a law that's
   [2]content-based as applied can restrict speech as much as a law
   that's content-based on its face. Moreover, such a law is indeed
   punishing the "speech element" of the communication rather than some
   "nonspeech element," see U.S. v. O'Brien.

   This principle is in some tension, however, with claims (such as those
   made by Dean Elena Kagan and Professor Jed Rubenfeld) that the First
   Amendment is chiefly aimed at preventing government actions that are
   motivated by a desire to suppress speech. In the examples [3]I've
   given, the lawmakers may have genuinely wanted to prevent a certain
   kind of harm, and may have been quite indifferent to whether that harm
   is caused by speech or by conduct. The drafters of the Espionage Act,
   for instance, might have sincerely wanted to punish all interference
   with military recruitment. But whether the Act was well-motivated or
   not, it should have generally been unconstitutional when applied to
   interference by persuasion.

   In some of the examples, one can argue that the law is open to
   improper government motivations in its enforcement. For instance, the
   "outrageousness" test in the emotional distress tort, the "offensive
   conduct" test in breach of the peace laws, and the "offensive work
   environment" test in workplace harassment law are quite vague.
   Prosecutors, judges, and juries might well interpret them narrowly
   when they agree with the speech, and broadly when they disagree with
   the speech.

   But in other situations, the law is pretty clear. Public speech that
   advocates draft resistance does seem likely to obstruct recruitment. A
   journal article that explains how fingerprint recognition systems can
   be evaded does seem likely to facilitate certain crimes by some
   readers. If applying the law to such speech would violate the First
   Amendment, the reason must flow from something other than the
   government's motive, which may well be quite pure.

   Prosecutors may still have discretion in deciding whom to charge under
   those laws, and they may exercise that discretion out of a desire to
   suppress certain viewpoints, rather than to evenhandedly prevent the
   harm that the law is aimed at preventing. But that risk is equally
   present for any law that may be applied to speech, including generally
   applicable laws that are both speech-neutral on their face and
   content-neutral as applied.

   So, if the cases I've discussed are right, then the constitutional
   problem lies in the law's being content-based as applied -- in its
   punishing speech because of the persuasive effect of the speech -- and
   not in the government's being motivated by a desire to suppress speech
   rather than to prevent harm. Though the Supreme Court has at times
   said that "[i]n determining whether a regulation is content based or
   content neutral, we look to the purpose behind the regulation," it has
   also acknowledged that "while a content-based purpose may be
   sufficient in certain circumstances to show that a regulation is
   content based, it is not necessary to such a showing in all cases."
   The better formulation is the one the Court has often used: A
   content-neutral law is one that is "justified without reference to the
   content of the regulated speech" -- and a law that is content-based as
   applied is indeed justified, in that application, with reference to
   what the speech communicates.

   Tomorrow: More on why content-based speech restrictions are indeed
   generally more troublesome than content-neutral restrictions.

References

   1. http://volokh.com/archives/archive_2007_07_01-2007_07_07.shtml#1183481341
   2. http://volokh.com/archives/archive_2007_07_01-2007_07_07.shtml#1183481341
   3. http://volokh.com/archives/archive_2007_07_01-2007_07_07.shtml#1183481341

_______________________________________________
Volokh mailing list
[email protected]
http://lists.powerblogs.com/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/volokh

Reply via email to