Posted by Ilya Somin:
How Federal is Star Trek's Federation?
http://volokh.com/archives/archive_2007_09_16-2007_09_22.shtml#1190182117


   While teaching my Federalism seminar recently, I made an analogy to
   Star Trek's [1]United Federation of Planets. That got me thinking
   about the role of federalism in Star Trek. How much power does the
   Federation's central government have, and how much is left to the
   individual planets? Does the central government's Star Fleet have a
   monopoly of military force, or do Vulcan and other planets have their
   own local forces? Does the Federation subsidize planetary governments
   heavily, or are there hard budget constraints? Despite five Star Trek
   TV series and numerous movies, these questions haven't really been
   answered. Unfortunately, the [2]academic literature on Federation law
   isn't much help either (see also [3]this supposedly comprehensive
   volume on Star Trek and the law, which totally neglects federalism
   issues).

   The evidence in the TV series' on these points is contradictory. On
   the one hand, the Federation seems to have a socialistic economy with
   a massive welfare state and no currency, which would require a high
   degree of centralization and planning incompatible with meaningful
   federalism. In the absence of a currency and price system, central
   planning seems to be the only way to coordinate a complex economy to
   even a limited degree. On the other, member planets apparently have
   considerable autonomy. For example, Vulcan seems to have very
   different laws from Earth. And Vulcan's economy seems to have a large
   market sector dominated by family-owned enterprises. In Deep Space
   Nine, the planet of Bajor applies for Federation membership. Although
   Bajor is at least a partial theocracy with a government heavily
   influenced by religious leaders, anti-Federation Bajorans never argue
   that Federation membership would lead to the end of Bajor's
   quasi-theocratic political system (as it surely would if the highly
   secular Federation denied political autonomy to member planets).

   How to reconcile the evidence? I would suggest that it is only Earth
   that is socialistic, while the other member worlds have free market
   systems or mixed economies. The human-dominated Star Fleet military is
   the only Federation military force, and is tasked with collecting
   tribute from the nonhuman planets for redistribution to Earth. But as
   long as they pay their taxes, which subsidize Earth's welfare state
   and Star Fleet itself, they are largely left alone to govern their
   domestic affairs as they see fit. The Federation is essentially a big
   protection racket (in both senses of the word: providing external
   security, and also "protection" against its own depradations). There
   is even a good historical precedent. The 5th century BC
   Athenian-dominated [4]Delian League also collected tribute from the
   other member states (which had no independent militaries) and used it
   to finance government spending on welfare benefits and (as well as the
   Athenian Navy, an analogue to Star Fleet).

   This theory explains a lot. For example, it is now clear why Star
   Fleet is so completely dominated by humans. I don't think we have ever
   seen a nonhuman Star Fleet admiral, and there are very few nonhumans
   serving even as lower-ranking officers. Except for a few collaborators
   like Mr. Spock (who is criticized by his fellow Vulcans for accepting
   too many "illogical" human ways), the nonhumans can't be trusted to
   force their own people to pay tribute. It also explains why the
   human-dominated Star Fleet military force seems to have near-total
   control over Federation foreign policy (e.g. - Star Fleet officers
   such as Capt. Picard make major policy decisions without any
   significant civilian oversight).

   Furthermore, in one of Star Trek movies, a Klingon spokesman denounces
   the Federation as a [5]"homo sapiens-only club." Taken literally, this
   is too obviously false to be effective propaganda; the Federation
   surely does have nonhuman members. But this propaganda line makes
   sense if it actually refers to the fact that Federation and Star Fleet
   are tools for expropriating wealth from nonhuman planets and
   transferring it to Earth.

   Why don't we ever see Captain Kirk or Capt. Picard on tribute
   collection missions? Because the Enterprise is one of Star Fleet's
   most advanced warships, and is therefore reserved for more difficult
   missions, such as going "where no man has gone before" in search of
   new wealthy star systems to occupy and tax. Note the term "no man,"
   which further underscores human control of the Federation.

   How does the Prime Directive fit into this? On the surface, it seems
   incompatible with an imperialistic Federation. But remember that the
   Prime Directive only applies to planets which are at a much lower
   level of technological development than the Federation itself. That
   is, only to planets that are not wealthy enough to be worth the cost
   of occupying and taxing. Star Fleet Command wants to prevent
   glory-seeking captains like Kirk from taking over underdeveloped
   worlds that are likely to drain more revenue than they bring in. The
   Prime Directive serves this goal, while also cloaking Federation
   imperialism in a veneer of righteousness that has been all too
   successful in fooling generations of TV viewers.

   I highly doubt that this is the interpretation of Star Trek that Gene
   Roddenderry intended. However, it does account for the available
   evidence, doesn't it?

References

   1. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_Federation_of_Planets
   2. http://tarlton.law.utexas.edu/lpop/etext/joseph-carton.htm
   3. http://www.amazon.com/Star-Visions-Justice-Crime-Corrections/dp/0966808029
   4. http://www.livius.org/de-dh/delian_league/delian_league.html
   5. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_Federation_of_Planets

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