Posted by Eugene Volokh:
The Limits of *Morse v. Frederick*:
http://volokh.com/archives/archive_2009_06_28-2009_07_04.shtml#1246400649


   I've often heard people defending various K-12 speech restrictions by
   citing [1]Morse v. Frederick (the BONG HiTS 4 JESUS case). Many of
   these people think Morse is wrong, but argue that it's binding
   precedent.

   But as to many of these arguments (see some [2]in this thread), Morse
   is often not very relevant, much less binding. One premise of the
   Morse majority is that the speech wasn't "political":

     Elsewhere in its opinion, the dissent emphasizes the importance of
     political speech and the need to foster �national debate about a
     serious issue,� as if to suggest that the banner is political
     speech. But not even Frederick argues that the banner conveys any
     sort of political or religious message. Contrary to the dissent�s
     suggestion, this is plainly not a case about political debate over
     the criminalization of drug use or possession.

   Two of the five Justices in the majority (Justices Alito and Kennedy)
   stressed this in the very first paragraph of their opinion:

     I join the opinion of the Court on the understanding that (a) it
     goes no further than to hold that a public school may restrict
     speech that a reasonable observer would interpret as advocating
     illegal drug use and (b) it provides no sup-port for any
     restriction of speech that can plausibly be interpreted as
     commenting on any political or social issue, including speech on
     issues such as �the wisdom of the war on drugs or of legalizing
     marijuana for medicinal use.�

   What's more, three of the four dissenters agreed: "This is a nonsense
   message, not advocacy."

   Now, as [3]I argued when the decision came down, I think the Justices
   were wrong to say that Frederick's message was nonsense, or even just
   nonpolitical. The majority said "BONG HiTS 4 JESUS" "could be
   interpreted as an imperative ... 'smoke marijuana' or 'use an illegal
   drug,'" or "as celebrating drug use -- 'bong hits [are a good
   thing],'" two messages that the majority saw as constitutionally
   indistinguishable. But these messages indeed "can plausibly be
   interpreted as commenting on any political or social issue": They
   implicitly suggest that drug laws are a bad idea ("violate law X"
   often tends to suggest that, especially as to laws that are quite
   controversial), which is a comment on a political issue. And they
   suggest that drug use is a good idea, which is a comment on a social
   issue.

   Yet while the Court applied its own test incorrectly to these facts,
   it hardly follows that it should apply its own test incorrectly to
   other facts as well, especially ones that are quite far removed from
   these. Perhaps Morse supports the view that highly opaque statements
   might be seen as nonpolitical. Perhaps it supports the view that mere
   advocacy of illegal conduct is nonpolitical, though I think that is
   inconsistent enough with the rest of the Court's precedents that I
   don't think it's right to read Morse even that broadly.

   But surely the T-shirt below (to give the example that triggered this
   post) clearly "can plausibly be interpreted as commenting on any
   political or social issue": [abortiongrowinggrowinggone.pdf]

   It is saying that abortion is immoral, so people shouldn't engage in
   it. And it is probably also saying that it is so immoral that abortion
   should be legally restricted. (That abortion is currently
   constitutionally protected doesn't matter: That just means that
   legally restricting it would require either electing Presidents who
   appoint enough Justices who would hold that abortion is
   constitutionally unprotected, or enacting a constitutional amendment
   to the same effect -- politically quite difficult, especially at this
   point, but certainly calls for this are political speech. Plus of
   course even if abortion can't be entirely banned, it can be restricted
   in various ways, which the T-shirt likely implicitly calls for as
   well.)

   Now indeed if the T-shirt said something like "Kill abortionists,"
   then perhaps the Morse analogy would govern. I would still say that
   such a statement is political speech and thus Morse shouldn't apply,
   but I can see the argument that statements in Morse distinguish, in
   the K-12 public school context, between advocacy of illegal conduct
   and advocacy of changing the law (or changing social attitudes). But
   nothing in Morse would extend to the T-shirt mentioned above.

   I can understand why many people are upset at Morse. I can also
   understand why many people like Morse and wish it had gone further,
   perhaps (as Justice Thomas suggested) to give K-12 school
   administrators blanket authority to restrict student speech. But if
   we're looking at what the language of Morse actually means, it seems
   to me that we need to acknowledge that it's distinctly limited in its
   scope.

References

   1. http://www.supremecourtus.gov/opinions/06pdf/06-278.pdf
   2. http://volokh.com/archives/archive_2009_06_28-2009_07_04.shtml#1246386747
   3. http://volokh.com/archives/archive_2007_06_24-2007_06_30.shtml#1182830987

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