Posted by Eugene Volokh:
My Torts Class, and Alienation of Affections:
http://volokh.com/archives/archive_2009_08_02-2009_08_08.shtml#1249502730


   By the way, here's what I say in my syllabus about the alienation of
   affections and criminal conversation. I hope the "pedagogical goals"
   section helps explain why I've decided to include it, though part of
   the reason is just that it's a fun subject that's likely to get
   students excited, which is especially important late in the semester.

   Alienation of affections basically consists of a defendant�s (1)
   wrongfully (2) causing plaintiff (3) to lose the affection and often
   company of the plaintiff�s spouse. In principle, it could apply to
   supposedly meddling in-laws, and has sometimes been applied that way,
   though if the in-laws are looking out for their married child�s best
   interest such behavior might not be �wrongful.� In practice, it has
   generally been applied to lovers who seduce one spouse away from the
   other (if it can be shown that they caused the alienation, rather than
   that a preexisting alienation of the spouses caused one spouse to be
   interested in the defendant�s attentions). The related tort of
   criminal conversation basically consists of a defendant�s having
   adulterous sex with plaintiff�s spouse; but for our purposes, we�ll
   treat that as a subset of alienation of affections (which is indeed
   the approach in some states).

   These torts have been largely abolished, but remain recognized in
   Hawaii, Illinois, Mississippi, New Mexico, North Carolina, South
   Dakota, and Utah. And they are not infrequently litigated, especially
   in North Carolina: A 2006 article in the Greensboro News & Record
   reports that �People filed an average of 245 such suits per year in
   North Carolina between 2000 and 2005, according to data provided by
   the state Administrative Office of the Courts.�

   By way of comparison, the well-established right of publicity tort
   seems to be litigated much less often (2 cases since 2000 in the NC-CS
   and NC-TRIALORDERS Westlaw databases, as opposed to 38 for the
   alienation of affections). Even on a national basis, an ALLCASES
   search for sy(�right of publicity� ((misappropriat! appropriat!) +5
   (name likeness image))) & date(> 1/1/2000) yielded 150 cases, while
   sy((alienat! +3 affection) "criminal conversation") & date(> 1/1/2000)
   yielded 66, of which 50 were in jurisdictions that still recognize one
   or both of those torts. So there�s life in this old tort yet, though
   query whether there should be.

   Pedagogical goals: (1) Throughout most of the class, we�ve discussed
   how tort law has substantively expanded, so that formerly nontortious
   behavior is now treated as tortious. It�s easy to assume, even
   unconsciously, that this trend is natural, irreversible, and right.
   But these torts help illustrate that torts could also be abrogated,
   either through judicial or statutory decision. (This has also happened
   in narrower contexts as to negligence and strict liability�consider,
   for instance, some tort reform proposals that have capped damages.)
   And considering the rejection of these torts might lead us to ask,
   especially in the coming units: Should any other torts be rejected or
   dramatically narrowed as well?

   (2) The rejection of these torts also leads us to ask: Why would
   courts or legislatures reject liability for behavior that is pretty
   clearly wrongful (which adultery is, even if some forms of alienation
   of affections might not be), and that is pretty clearly emotionally
   damaging to the victim? Did they conclude that the damage wasn�t real
   enough, because it isn�t physical? (That would also bear on some of
   the other torts we�ve been discussing in the last few units, and that
   we�ll discuss in the coming units.)

   Did they conclude that the behavior should be within people�s zone of
   liberty? (Why would that be so, about adultery? Also, should the same
   rationale apply to some of the other torts we discuss below?) Did they
   conclude there were especially severe problems of proof for these
   torts but not others? Did they have any other reasons?

   (3) And we should be open to the possibility that the progress of the
   law here has been mistaken, and should be reversed. Should states
   readopt the torts. Why, or why not?

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