What I don't know is whether the gained kinetic energy is equal to the energy 
you put into the loop to
establish the magnetic field, but this may be true I just haven't worked it out.

What if both magnets are permanent ones, you don't have to put energy in do you?

Michel

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "John Berry" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: <[email protected]>
Sent: Tuesday, January 30, 2007 7:12 AM
Subject: Re: [Vo]: Energy *Violations* using *standard* physics


> On 1/30/07, Michel Jullian <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>>
>> > Where did this [kinetic energy] come from? Simply the energy you put
>> into the loop to
>> > establish the magnetic field.
>>
>> I don't know, do we have to put energy into a positive charge so that it
>> gets attracted to a negative charge? (we must not forget that the magnetic
>> force from a moving charged particle is purely electric in that particle's
>> rest frame)
> 
> 
> Ever heard of self inductance?
> When trying to establish a current the current forms a magnetic field, as
> the magnetic is time varying from nothing to the full level of current in
> the loop, this creates an emf in the loop which opposes the voltage being
> applied. (unless you designed the coil to not create a magnetic field)
> 
> So while it might be a constant current and no energy is requires to
> maintain the current, you still had to put energy in to establish the field.
> 
> This is pretty freaking basic stuff!
> 
> Michel
>>
>>
>> ----- Original Message -----
>> From: "John Berry" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>> To: <[email protected]>
>> Sent: Monday, January 29, 2007 2:02 PM
>> Subject: Re: [Vo]: Energy *Violations* using *standard* physics
>>
>>
>> > The magnet moving towards the loop will induce the opposite voltage in
>> the
>> > loop, as .00000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000001 volts
>> > induced in the opposite direction is enough to reverse the current
>> direction
>> > in the SC loop the magnet will basically not be attracted at all.
>> > Except of course for the fact that this would collapse the magnetic
>> field of
>> > the loop, so this helps keep the current flowing.
>> >
>> > So what will occur is a hand off, the voltage induced by the magnet will
>> be
>> > equal to the voltage induced by the collapsing magnetic field, so the
>> > magnetic field is slowly collapsed, there is no more current in the loop
>> and
>> > the magnet has gained KE.
>> >
>> > Where did this come from? Simply the energy you put into the loop to
>> > establish the magnetic field. (It might be a superconductor so it takes
>> no
>> > energy to maintain a magnetic field but it does take energy to establish
>> > one)
>> >
>> > In this case energy is conserved, and energy is always conserved unless
>> you
>> > use the aether, space time to change the rules.
>> >
>> >
>> > On 1/29/07, Michel Jullian <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>> >>
>> >> Your new experiment (attraction rather than alignment) simplifies
>> things
>> >> somehow (no torque, just linear acceleration), but let's stick to the
>> >> non-wire-resistive loop shall we, it makes things simpler, and closer
>> to the
>> >> electron orbit or spin counterpart you are comparing it to.
>> >>
>> >> 1/ Using an external current source, let's start a constant current
>> >> through the loop.
>> >>
>> >> 2/ Zero wire resistance, zero radiation resistance, constant current so
>> >> zero auto-induced voltage -L*di/dt, so zero voltage drop. This means we
>> can
>> >> connect the loop back on itself and remove the current source without
>> >> stopping the current ok? Let's do that, so that loop voltage will
>> remain
>> >> zero for ever, and define this as time zero for the energy balance.
>> >>
>> >> 3/ Now let's release the magnet. It should indeed be attracted and
>> >> accelerated towards the short-circuited current loop so KE will be
>> gained,
>> >> but how could the energy be drawn from the loop if voltage is zero?
>> >>
>> >> Michel
>> >>
>> >> ----- Original Message -----
>> >> From: "Paul" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>> >> To: <[email protected]>
>> >> Sent: Monday, January 29, 2007 3:16 AM
>> >> Subject: Re: [Vo]: Energy *Violations* using *standard* physics
>> >>
>> >>
>> >> > Michel Jullian wrote:
>> >> > > I agree with all the interesting comments below,
>> >> > both Stephen's and yours, relative to
>> >> > the unavoidable antenna aspect of a coil, which makes
>> >> > it non purely inductive to some
>> >> > extent when current varies with time.
>> >> > >
>> >> > > However, may I remind you that my initial
>> >> > statement, which you deemed 100% incorrect,
>> >> > simply said that "keeping the current going" in an
>> >> > isolated non-resistive current loop
>> >> > would not consume energy.
>> >> > > In which case i is constant in time, so the
>> >> > frequency f of the signal is zero, so the
>> >> > wavelength lambda = c/f is infinite, so the radiation
>> >> > resistance:
>> >> > >
>> >> > > Rr= 31171 * A^2/lambda^2  (with A the area of the
>> >> > circular loop) is zero.
>> >> > >
>> >> > > So the power Rr*i^2 consumed in Rr is zero too.
>> >> > This still doesn't make my loop consume
>> >> > energy.
>> >> >
>> >> >
>> >> >
>> >> > Your Quote,
>> >> > ---
>> >> > "You keep telling us electromagnets consume energy,
>> >> > true but that's only because the wires
>> >> > are resistive. A non-resistive current-loop would not
>> >> > consume any energy to keep the
>> >> > current going."
>> >> > ---
>> >> >
>> >> >
>> >> > LOL ... this is hopeless. Again -->  You state the
>> >> > only consumed energy in an
>> >> > electro-magnetic is because the wires are resistive.
>> >> > Besides the fact you missed other
>> >> > factors such as radiation resistance lets focus on the
>> >> > fact that a magnet attracted and
>> >> > accelerating toward the wire resistive current loop
>> >> > would *indeed* induce an opposing
>> >> > voltage, which would consume energy. The gained KE
>> >> > comes from the wire resistive current loop.
>> >> >
>> >> >
>> >> >
>> >> >
>> >> > Regards,
>> >> > Paul Lowrance
>> >> >
>> >> >
>> >> >
>> >> >
>> >>
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