On Sat, 27 Jun 2009, John Berry wrote:

> After re-reading I still fail to understand your contact point thought, but
> is it merely to produce a magnetic field in the shaft?

A Faraday motor has a radial current in a disk, and a magnet to produce a
b-field perpendicular to the disk.  This produces a torque between the
disk and the sliding contact at the edge (but zero net torque on the
permanent magnet.)  If instead we remove the magnet and place a coil on
the copper disk, and route some current through the coil, the motor still
spins.  If instead of a coil, we carve spiral slots into the copper disk,
which forces the current to have a circular component as well as radial,
the motor still spins.

DOH!  I wrongly called these "self-acting" Faraday motors, but the real
term is "self-excited," as with standard DC generators where the generator
output is used to "excite" the generator's own field coil.   If we short
out a self-excited Faraday motor, then spin the shaft, it starts
generating a current.   But this only works above a certain RPM, where
the output energy is greater than the resistive losses.

> If we used a magnetized shaft, north at one end south at the other would
> this still be required to create the effect?

That would work.  A magnetized shaft would turn it into a conventional
Faraday motor.

I'm looking for an effect which would drive an all-copper ball bearing
motor into rotation.


> Is the force you are envisioning one that puts a torque on the individual
> ball bearings?

Yes, a relative torque between each bearing and the ring enclosing them.




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