Yes, that would be another test to reveal whether or not it is actually a perpetual motion device. I was looking for a test that would be quick, and easy. All you would need to do is see if the machine rotates at the speed shown in the video. The rate of rotation depends upon the amount of stored potential energy that is converted into rotational energy, a form of kinetic energy.
Dave -----Original Message----- From: James Bowery <[email protected]> To: vortex-l <[email protected]> Sent: Wed, Sep 5, 2012 2:19 pm Subject: Re: [Vo]:Perpetual motion machine OK since no arithmetic seems plausible, what about actually obtaining the device in question and running the obvious test: Let it run for a very very long time? On Wed, Sep 5, 2012 at 12:58 PM, David Roberson <[email protected]> wrote: An easy test to prove that the energy is not stored in the top magnet is to hold the device while it slowly rotates in your hand. Locate the point where the torque is minimum and let it go. Be careful to ensure that the upper magnet is not at the top of the fixture at the release point. I expect that the device will rotate at a very slow rate under my test condition. Eventually it will cease to move. If it accelerates as in the test video then perhaps it is a perpetual motion machine. Dave -----Original Message----- From: Harry Veeder <[email protected]> To: vortex-l <[email protected]> Sent: Wed, Sep 5, 2012 1:42 pm Subject: Re: [Vo]:Perpetual motion machine I think the question of energy stored in a permanent magnet is a redherring. Replace the permanent magnet by a spring. The spring will lose its springiness over time as it is repeatedly compressed. Do we say this is because spring energy is being used up? Harry On Wed, Sep 5, 2012 at 12:41 PM, James Bowery <[email protected]> wrote: > On Wed, Sep 5, 2012 at 11:14 AM, Abd ul-Rahman Lomax <[email protected]> > wrote: >> >> For example, there is potential energy stored in a "permanent" magnet, in >> the magnetisation. > > > This is one of the quantities that must be entered into the arithmetic I > originally requested of the system cited in the original post. > > If we can assign an inductance and current value to the contents of a > permanent magnet, we can coservatively calculate the energy in a permanent > magnet according to the equation: > > E = L*I^2/2 > > How might we go about assigning L and I values given a specific magnetism?
