Since JSValueRef and JSObjectRef are typedef's to the same OpaqueJSValue
structure (pointer), it appears you could almost use them in the same
contexts. And if fact, it appears you can use a JSObjectRef wherever a
JSValueRef is defined in the API. And you can sometimes use a
JSValueRef wherever a JSObjectRef is defined.
It would be nice to see this documented a little better. My current
guess is that if JSValueGetType() returns kJSTypeObject for a
JSValueRef, you can safely treat it as a JSObjectRef. If it doesn't,
then you can't.
Guess is based on looking at the code, seeing the pointer dereferenced
in the JSObjectRef cases, but knowing that those pointers are actually
sometimes tagged pointers for literal values, in which case the
dereference won't work.
--
Patrick Mueller
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