Perhaps the -ec 0.001 and -cc 0.001 are too large of values.
As I recall, to be well-converged, it is usually best to use about the
default values seen in the post  or WIEN2k 17.1 usersguide  as:
It sounded like about the default value for -ec was good unless
something like -ec 0.00001 was desired to reduce numerical noise, but
anything smaller seemed useless [3,4].
For -cc, 0.00001 also may be the lowest limit  and quite ambitious to
try to use .
In section "4.5.4 Antiferromagnetic (AFM) calculations" on page 46 in
the usersguide , there is the statement:
"If nothing changes (E-tot and other properties), then you are ok,
otherwise make sure the scf calculation is well converged (-cc 0.0001 or
If I read from the statement correctly, a well converged scf calculation
typically uses -cc with a value of 0.0001 or smaller. Though, there is a
realistic limit as mentioned above on how small it could be set.
In , it sounded important that the -cc value was low for the :MMIn
So, maybe the calculation can still converge further such that possibly
the "MMI for V1" and "MMI for V2" will both become zero when they reach
On 9/7/2017 9:11 AM, Abderrahmane Reggad wrote:
I have used the PBE+EECC calculation for 3 configurations: nm, fm and
afm I and I found that the afm I is the most stable.
The energy criterion and charge are 0.001 Ry and 0.001 e respectively.
I don't worry about if the material is really antiferromagnetic or
paramagnetic because of:
1- I found only one experimental study that they found the compound to
be pauli magnetic and one theoritical study which they found the
compound to be non magnetic and these two studies are not sufficient
to judge the compound to be in a such state. The theoritical study
used the GGA method which is not good for correlated systems.
2- In the anfiferromagnetic state afm I in the NiAs structure for
vanadium sulphide I found the following results:
MMI for V1: 0.05 MB
MMI for V2 :- 0.05 MB
MMI for S: 0 MB
My questions are now:
what's the definition of non magnetic compound ?
I think we can talk about non magnetic calculation and not about non
As Blaha said we can't silulate the paramagnetic state or at at least
it's difficult to do it because we can't orientate the spins randomly
ang maintain the total magnetic moment equals to zero.
Because of the Hind's prediction and because the impaired number of
the V2+ ion to equal 3 I believe the atomic magnetic moment to be
different from zero.
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