To quickly follow up, before the thread gets presumably closed for being way off topic:

Patrick H. Lauke wrote:

The Directive on Privacy and Electronic Communications (2002/58/EC)
<http://www.dti.gov.uk/industries/ecommunications/directive_on_privacy_electronic_communications_200258ec.html> "extends controls on unsolicited direct marketing to all forms of electronic communications including unsolicited commercial e-mail (UCE or Spam) and SMS to mobile telephones; UCE and SMS will be subject to a prior consent requirement

That seems to be an interesting distinction to the EC directive: it only mentions prior consent, not necessarily an opt-in.

According to law firm Pinsent Masons' article <http://www.out-law.com/page-5657> (free reg required)

"Consent by definition requires some sort of positive action on behalf of the recipient. However, it is a widely held misconception in data protection terms that consent requires that the user "opts-in" to their data being used. Prior consent does not mean the same thing as "opt-in".

[...]

"Prior consent", however, does not specify any particular means of assessing the user's intention. Therefore, while opt-in is one way of demonstrating a user's consent, it is not the only way.

Another equally acceptable practice would be to collect the customer's details, at the same time presenting them with a data protection notice which is drafted to state that by providing their details the user consents to the receipt of unsolicited marketing emails. Key to this is the way in which the consent statement is drafted. It must be a positive statement, the effect of which is to be considered as positive consent by the user.

At the same time the user must be provided with an opportunity to opt-out of their details being used for this method. The best way of achieving this is to include an opt-out tick box as a part of the data protection notice."



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Patrick H. Lauke
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