"Persian" is an English pronunciation, "Farsi" an Arabic one. Both derive from the same word. I can't see why one is fake and not the other. Like saying the real name of French is Französich, for some reason having to do with German phonetics...
We say Parsi, the international community says Persian. History says Persian, where does Farsi come from? As I said before, you should read some history before commenting unwisely? at least you know that arabs have tried their best to change the name of "Persian gulf" into Arabian gulf but they always have failed to do so. > Plus in good phonology, if there's no "p" then you can't consider that "f" > represents the sound /f/; it represents an archiphonem of both /p/ and /f/. > So it's "parsi" after all. > > > Exactly -- به نام خداوند جان و خرد کزین برتر اندیشه برنگذرد
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