OK, understood, but I also feel that it rather begs the question (the English
> name, that is, not your answer). Because if the received wisdom were that > the > preferred English name for the language was Farsi and not Persian, then > the English name of the Academy would surely be the the “Academy of Farsi > Language and Literature”, would it not ? So it is a sort of > self-fulfilling prophesy : > What is the historical name of the language of Persian nation in the west? is it Farsi or Persian? Was it Persian empire or Farsian Empire? > > the Academy of Persian Language and Literature "clearly advocates the use > of > the word 'Persian' not 'Farsi'", because if it did not, it would call > itself (in English) > the "Academy of Farsi Language and Literature" ! > > But if the Persian name for the Persian language is, in transliteration, * > Fārsī*, > is it really logical for the Persian nation (or should I here be writing > "Iranian" ? > This is quite a linguistic minefield) to seek to tell the West that while > it > is perfectly normal for a Persian (Iranian) to call his language *Fārsī*, > we in the > west must call it Persian ?! > > Why not?
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