Hi,

[...]

> > Something like that, the filter uses 0.75x nearest chrominance sample
> > and 0.25x second nearest chrominance sample. This is more accurate as
> > it doesn't shift the chrominance signal by 1 pixel.
>
>   Please, please correct me if I'm wrong here.  In MPEG sampling, the
> chrominance sample is halfway between the two luminance samples on the
> same vertical scanline (by is138182):

I think you're right, my interpolation looks like this :

o   o   (c=.75*c1 + .25*c0)
 c1
o   o   (c=.75*c1 + .25*c2)

o   o   (c=.75*c2 + .25*c1)
 c2
o   o   (c=.75*c2 + .25*c3)

[...]

>   So, are not the chroma samples above and below the same distance away?
> I thought this was the purpose of MPEG sampling, that is, it's
> reasonable to convert to 4:2:2 sampling by doubling the scanlines.

It's reasonable, but doubling the scanlines will make the image look a little 
blocky as both scanlines use the same chrominance values. That's why you 
should use filtering.

>   Are you sure that maybe the images where you see that nasty chroma
> artifact aren't from when the DVD is using interlaced encoding?  In this
> case, each second chroma sample is from a different field, and you can
> get blocky errors because you don't correllate samples correctly.

The source was a non-interlaced MPEG-1 video file. The red blocks are very 
small for (high resolution) DVD movies, but they are still visible.

>   What do you mean by shifting the chroma by one pixel?

It's actually 0.5 pixel (my mistake :)) using the following filter :

o   o   (c=c1)
 c1
o   o   (c=.5*c1 + .5*c2)

o   o   (c=c2)
 c2
o   o   (c=.5*c2 + .5*c3)

bye,

ewald
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