Douglas Gregor <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes:
> I've given probably the closest thing to a proof that one can get without
> having a formal specification. It uses only semantic equivalences given in
> the three paragraphs it cites. Is there a problem with it?
FWIW, I'm satisfied.
--
David Abrahams
[EMAIL PROTECTED] * http://www.boost-consulting.com
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