>Does anyone else believe that the Indo-European and Semitic >languages and religions are indeed fertility and mushroom cults derived >from ancient Sumerian language and culture? That they were ~the~ singular influence seems to be an inflated position that pushes aside all other views and influences. For scholarly purposes of exposition, (or exhibition) this is sometimes necessary, but never ~true~ in the sense we ususually use the word. But I'm speaking here without having read the book. A few general history observations: Clearly Sumarian language and culture had a deep impact on the Levant, on Egypt, Turkey/Anatolia and further. Trade records with Indus River valley cultures have been found. When the Hebrews were in Babylon, a Sumerian hand-me-down city, and decided to switch from oral to written records, the sumerian (then assysian) language was surely going to impact the writing. Clearly a whole host of ecstatic mystery cults deeply impacted the area as well. Mushrooms would certainly play a part in any cult that experiments with local hallucinagens. The Greeks sure had enough left-over mushroom sculptures to verify the lasting tradition. -Richard
