Hi, I have been reading a lot of articles on empirical studies using multiple regreession. Many scientists use a scatterplot of the standardized residuals and standardized PREDICTED values to test for homoskedasticity. If there was no pattern they concluded that the variance of the residuals was costant across all level of the INDEPENDENT variables (homoskedasticity).
This confuses me. Wouldn't I have to use scatterplots of EACH of the INDEPENDENT variables and the residuals to make sure there is no heteroskedasticity? Best regards, Jennifer Borck . . ================================================================= Instructions for joining and leaving this list, remarks about the problem of INAPPROPRIATE MESSAGES, and archives are available at: . http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/ . =================================================================
