On Wed, Apr 27, 2016 at 12:47 AM, Bruce Kellett <bhkell...@optusnet.com.au>
wrote:

> Your simulation assumes the quantum mechanical results. In other words, it
> assumes non-locality in order to calculate the statistics. Where does the
> cos^2(theta/2) come from in your analysis?
>

The question I asked you was whether you thought you could definitively
disprove the idea that all the observable statistics of QM could be
reproduced by rules that are "local" in the specific narrow sense I had
described to you--remember all that stuff about having computers
determining what the value of local variables at each point in spacetime
should be, using only information about the value of local variables in the
past light cone of that point, plus the general rules programmed into them
(which take that information about the past light cone as input, and spit
out the value of local variables at that point as output)? This is a narrow
and mathematically well-defined question (and is based specifically on how
Bell defined 'locality'), it's completely irrelevant to the question
whether or not the *idea* for the rules that I programmed into the
computers that perform these local calculations came from looking at some
equations that are written in a 'non-local' way (i.e., the equations
generate their predictions by evolving a single 'state vector' for the
entire spatially-distributed system). Do you understand this distinction
between the narrow, well-defined definition of "local rules" (if you're
unclear on what I mean here, please ask), and broader questions about what
inspired the rules themselves? And are you claiming that even if we
restrict our attention to the narrow definition of "local rules", you can
still say with 100% certainty that no such "local rules" can accurately
reproduce all the predictions about measurement outcomes made by QM?

Jesse

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